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This question already has an answer here:

Wing-tip vortices only start occurring when the pressure difference on the two sides of the wing starts. Wouldn't this mean that by the time the downwash from the vortices is acting on the airflow it would already have bent on to the surface of the wing and could not be pushed down any more? enter image description here

In this picture you can see that the flow is already on the wing and it can not bend down any further because the wing is there.

How do the vortices change the direction of the relative airflow before it reaches the wing? The vortices only occur on the wing so they should not be able to do this.

EDIT: When I say downwash I am talking about wing-tip vortices pushing the airflow down therefore reducing angle of attack.

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marked as duplicate by Pondlife, FreeMan, Jan Hudec, Community Jun 25 '17 at 20:30

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    $\begingroup$ Sorry about my bad drawing skills. It is hard to draw with a mouse $\endgroup$ – Crafterguy Jun 19 '17 at 15:50
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    $\begingroup$ "How does downwash bend airflow down?" it's unclear to me what you are asking. the downwash IS the "bent" airflow. $\endgroup$ – Federico Jun 19 '17 at 16:07
  • $\begingroup$ What is bending the airflow down if the downwash is the bent down airflow $\endgroup$ – Crafterguy Jun 19 '17 at 18:32
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    $\begingroup$ If you use a drawing program, you can add text in the drawing. Built-in ones are Paint for Windows, Preview.for MacOS, and there's a whole array of free apps available. Also, it is good practice to upvote answers that are useful to you. The best one is usually Accepted. $\endgroup$ – Koyovis Jun 20 '17 at 2:17
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    $\begingroup$ There is no bending from the wing and additional bending from wingtip vortices. Rather, there is bending and that is the vortex. See also How does an aircraft form wake turbulence? and maybe also Is induced drag not caused by tip vortices? and the links therein. $\endgroup$ – Jan Hudec Jun 20 '17 at 19:47